Free · 2026 · Full-length practice exam Free RBT practice exam: 85 questions with answers

85 questions, the length of the real RBT exam, spread across its six sections in the proportions of the BACB's RBT Test Content Outline (3rd edition). The real exam scores 75 of its 85 questions; here every question counts. The clock starts at your first answer. Submit any time to see your score by domain and every answer explained.

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85 questions, 90 min clock
Every answer explained

What's in this practice exam
Domain	Questions	Real exam
Data Collection and Graphing	15	17.3%
Behavior Assessment	9	10.7%
Behavior Acquisition	22	25.3%
Behavior Reduction	16	18.7%
Documentation and Reporting	11	13.3%
Ethics	12	14.7%

Question 1 of 85
An RBT has a short call with the supervisor and four items to raise. Which item should the RBT raise first?
Answer choices for question 1
AThe RBT has a question about formatting a graph's axis labelsBThe client began head-hitting this week, leaving a small bruiseCThe client's preferred toy for one program has worn outDThe RBT would like to change next month's session start times
Answer: B. A new self-injurious behavior that has caused injury is a safety concern. It needs clinical direction before less urgent matters.
Why not A: A minor documentation question has the lowest urgency of these four items.
Why not C: A materials request is routine. It ranks below a safety issue.
Why not D: Scheduling preferences matter but are not urgent. They do not affect client safety.
Remember: When seeking direction, raise client safety issues, such as new or worsening self-injury, before routine or administrative questions.
Question 2 of 85
Which situation is an example of a multiple relationship under the BACB RBT Ethics Code (2.0)?
Answer choices for question 2
AAn RBT collaborates with a client's speech therapist and teacherBAn RBT serves a client who is also the RBT's close personal friendCAn RBT receives supervision from more than one qualified supervisorDAn RBT works part-time for two different ABA agencies at once
Answer: B. A multiple relationship exists when an RBT has a professional role with a client and also another role (such as friend, family member, or business partner) with that client or someone closely associated with or related to the client. These relationships can impair objectivity and increase risk of harm or exploitation, so RBTs should avoid them and, if unavoidable, tell their supervisor and take steps to reduce risk.
Why not A: Collaborating with other professionals is good practice. It does not create a second, non-professional relationship.
Why not C: Having several supervisors is allowed. It does not combine a professional role with a second, different kind of relationship.
Why not D: Working for two employers is not a mix of relationship types with a single person. It is not a multiple relationship by itself.
Remember: A multiple relationship exists when an RBT has a professional role with a client and also another role (such as friend, family member, or business partner) with that client or someone closely associated with or related to the client. These relationships can impair objectivity and increase risk of harm or exploitation, so RBTs should avoid them and, if unavoidable, tell their supervisor and take steps to reduce risk.
Question 3 of 85
After completing the 40-hour training, what must a candidate do next to demonstrate competence before applying for RBT certification?
Answer choices for question 3
AShadow a certified RBT for an additional 40 hours of sessionsBComplete the RBT Initial Competency Assessment with a qualified assessor, such as a BCBACPass the RBT certification examinationDScore themselves on a competency checklist and submit it to the BACB
Answer: B. After the 40-hour training, a qualified assessor such as a BCBA evaluates the candidate's skills through observation and demonstration in the Initial Competency Assessment, before the candidate applies for certification.
Why not A: Shadowing may be useful, but it is not the BACB requirement for demonstrating competence.
Why not C: The exam comes later; candidates must complete the competency assessment and apply before they are approved to take the exam.
Why not D: Competence must be assessed by a qualified assessor, not self-rated.
Remember: The sequence is 40-hour training, then the Initial Competency Assessment, then the application, then the exam.
Question 4 of 85
During a color-labeling program, an RBT hands Maya a sticker each time she correctly names a color. Over the next week, Maya correctly labels colors more often. Which procedure does this describe?
Answer choices for question 4
AExtinctionBPositive punishmentCPositive reinforcementDNegative reinforcement
Answer: C. A stimulus (the sticker) was added right after the behavior, and the behavior increased.
Why not A: Extinction withholds a previously delivered reinforcer. Here a reinforcer was given after every correct label.
Why not B: Positive punishment adds a stimulus that decreases behavior. Maya's labeling increased.
Why not D: Negative reinforcement removes a stimulus after a behavior. Here a sticker was added, not taken away.
Remember: Positive reinforcement means adding a stimulus after a behavior, and the behavior increases in the future.
Question 5 of 85
An RBT notices that a nonvocal client who rarely cries is pulling at their ear, crying, and refusing snacks. The client's behavior plan says to place escape-maintained crying on extinction. What action best reflects the principle of benefiting others?
Answer choices for question 5
AEnd the session early without telling anyone whyBGive the client a pain reliever from the family's medicine cabinetCContinue extinction, because the plan states crying is escape-maintainedDPromptly report the observations to the supervisor and caregiver
Answer: D. Putting the client's welfare first means quickly sharing possible signs of illness so the supervisor and caregiver can respond.
Why not A: Ending the session without communicating fails to get the client help and leaves the team uninformed.
Why not B: Giving medication is outside the RBT's role and could be unsafe.
Why not C: A sudden change with signs of possible pain may have a medical cause; following the plan rigidly could cause harm.
Remember: Client welfare comes first; report possible medical or safety concerns promptly rather than assuming a behavioral function.
Question 6 of 85
A caregiver quietly tells the RBT: "Please don't tell the supervisor, but I stopped using the home token system two weeks ago. It was too hard to keep up with." What is the most appropriate response?
Answer choices for question 6
ADesign a simpler token system for the caregiver to use at home starting this weekBKindly explain that treatment information is shared with the supervisor, then report it promptlyCWrite it only in the session note so the caregiver does not feel singled outDAgree to keep it private to protect rapport, and encourage the caregiver to restart
Answer: B. The supervisor is part of the client's treatment team, so sharing this is appropriate. Being open with the caregiver keeps trust while ensuring the supervisor can address the barrier.
Why not A: Changing or creating a caregiver procedure is a clinical decision. That decision belongs to the supervisor, not the RBT.
Why not C: A note the supervisor may not read soon is not prompt communication. Burying it does not get the issue addressed.
Why not D: Keeping treatment-relevant information from the supervisor undermines clinical decisions. The supervisor needs to know the plan is not being carried out at home.
Remember: Caregiver information that affects treatment must reach the supervisor promptly, even if the caregiver asks you to keep it private.
Question 7 of 85
An RBT graphs the number of correct object labels a client produces per session. Over five sessions, the data are 2, 4, 5, 7, and 9. Which best describes the trend?
Answer choices for question 7
ADecreasing trendBIncreasing trendCHighly variable with no clear trendDZero (flat) trend
Answer: B. Each data point is higher than the one before, so the data path moves steadily upward.
Why not A: A decreasing trend would show values getting lower over time, but these values rise each session.
Why not C: The data rise consistently with little bounce, so the direction is clear.
Why not D: A flat trend would show values staying about the same, but these values climb from 2 to 9.
Remember: Data points that rise steadily across sessions form an increasing trend, which is the desired direction for a skill being taught.
Question 8 of 85
An RBT is teaching a learner to wash his hands using a 9-step task analysis. Which data collection approach best fits this chaining program?
Answer choices for question 8
AFor each step, record whether the learner did it independently or which prompt level was neededBRecord only the total time from turning on the faucet to drying the handsCWrite an antecedent-behavior-consequence note after each stepDTally how many times the learner washes his hands across the whole day
Answer: A. Chaining data are taken step by step so the team can see which steps are mastered and which still need prompting.
Why not B: Duration data alone do not show which specific steps the learner can complete independently. That information is needed to make decisions about the chain.
Why not C: ABC recording is a descriptive assessment method for problem behavior. It is not the standard way to measure skill acquisition in a task-analyzed chain.
Why not D: A frequency count shows how often the routine happens, not how well each step is performed. It cannot guide prompting or show progress through the chain.
Remember: Task-analyzed chains are measured step by step, scoring each step as independent or by the prompt level used.
Question 9 of 85
During a multiple-stimulus-with-replacement (MSW) assessment, the RBT returns the chosen item to the array after each trial. The client chooses the tablet on all 10 trials. What is the main limitation this illustrates?
Answer choices for question 9
AThe tablet cannot be considered preferred because it was chosen too consistentlyBThe results show the tablet's function as a reinforcer for problem behaviorCThe RBT made a procedural error because chosen items must never be returned in this formatDThe data reveal little about how the client ranks the other, less-preferred items
Answer: D. Because a top item can be chosen over and over, MSW may identify only the most preferred item instead of a full hierarchy.
Why not A: Consistent selection is strong evidence that the tablet is highly preferred. It does not reduce confidence in that preference.
Why not B: A preference assessment identifies likely reinforcers. It does not identify the function of problem behavior; that is the role of functional assessment.
Why not C: Returning the chosen item is the defining feature of MSW. Not returning it would make the assessment an MSWO.
Remember: Because chosen items are returned in MSW, one highly preferred item can dominate, giving little information about lower-ranked items.
Question 10 of 85
An RBT runs a token economy with a client whose behavior plan includes DRA for polite language. The client keeps swearing, and the RBT thinks taking away a token after each swear would work well. What should the RBT do?
Answer choices for question 10
AUse a brief time-out instead, since it does not take away earned tokensBShare the idea with the supervisor and keep running the plan as writtenCSuggest the parent try token removal at home first to see whether it helpsDStart response cost right away, because removing a token is a mild procedure
Answer: B. RBTs implement the plan as written and bring suggestions to the supervisor, who decides whether to add any reduction procedure.
Why not A: Time-out is also a punishment procedure, so swapping in a different unwritten procedure is still changing the plan without authorization.
Why not C: Recommending new procedures to caregivers is clinical direction that belongs to the supervisor, not the RBT.
Why not D: Response cost is a punishment procedure. An RBT may use it only when it is written into the behavior plan and the supervisor has verified the RBT's competence.
Remember: An RBT never adds or changes a behavior-reduction procedure on their own; punishment is used only when it is in the written plan and the supervisor has verified competence.
Question 11 of 85
Which activity is an example of an indirect functional assessment method?
Answer choices for question 11
AHaving a caregiver complete a rating scale about when problem behavior occursBCompleting a scatterplot of problem behavior across times of dayCWriting narrative ABC notes while watching the client in the classroomDRunning test conditions in which attention is delivered after problem behavior
Answer: A. Indirect methods gather information secondhand through interviews, questionnaires, or rating scales rather than direct observation.
Why not B: A scatterplot is filled in from direct observation, so it is a descriptive method.
Why not C: Recording events while watching the client directly is descriptive assessment, not indirect assessment.
Why not D: Systematically arranging test conditions is a functional analysis, which is an experimental method.
Remember: Indirect assessments, such as interviews, questionnaires, and rating scales, rely on others' reports instead of direct observation.
Question 12 of 85
During snack time, Mia reaches toward a bag of crackers on a shelf she cannot reach. The RBT, using incidental teaching, pauses with an expectant look, and Mia says, "Cracker." What should the RBT deliver right away?
Answer choices for question 12
AA token Mia can trade for crackers at the end of the sessionBEnthusiastic verbal praise, followed by a return to the planned activityCA cracker, paired with brief praise for askingDA highly preferred toy from the reinforcer box
Answer: C. In incidental teaching the reinforcer is the item the learner showed interest in, so the cracker is directly and naturally tied to the request.
Why not A: Delaying access to the item Mia asked for weakens the link between her request and its natural outcome. Incidental teaching uses the item the learner initiated for as the reinforcer.
Why not B: Praise alone does not give Mia what she requested. Withholding the crackers fails to reinforce the request with its natural consequence.
Why not D: The toy has no relation to what Mia requested. Naturalistic teaching relies on reinforcers that are functionally related to the learner's response.
Remember: In incidental teaching, reinforce the learner's response by giving the specific item or activity the learner initiated for.
Question 13 of 85
A BCBA asks an RBT to help run the attention condition of a functional analysis for a client's head hitting. Which procedure best fits this condition?
Answer choices for question 13
AThe RBT appears busy and gives a brief statement of concern only after head hittingBThe RBT provides frequent attention and toys with no demands throughoutCThe RBT presents tasks and removes them briefly after head hittingDThe RBT leaves the client in a room with no people or materials
Answer: A. In the attention condition, attention is withheld and then delivered briefly contingent on the target behavior to test whether attention maintains it.
Why not B: This describes the play (control) condition, where reinforcement is freely available and no consequences follow the behavior.
Why not C: Removing tasks contingent on the behavior is the procedure for the escape (demand) condition, not the attention condition.
Why not D: This describes the alone condition, which tests whether the behavior persists without social consequences.
Remember: In the attention condition, attention is delivered only briefly and contingent on the target behavior.
Question 14 of 85
A behavior plan says to teach a learner to use color words during daily activities using natural environment training. Which scenario best matches that instruction?
Answer choices for question 14
AIn the kitchen, the RBT tapes color cards to the fridge, has the learner label all ten, and gives a sticker when the full set is finishedBAt the table, the RBT holds up color cards, asks "What color?", gives a piece of candy for each correct answer, and pauses three seconds between trialsCOn the playroom floor, the RBT shows color flashcards in rapid trials, asks "What color?" each time, and gives a token after every correct labelDWhile playing with cars, the RBT holds up a red car and a blue car and asks which one the learner wants; the learner says "blue" and receives the blue car
Answer: D. Teaching happens during a preferred play activity (cars), uses the learner's motivation, and gives a reinforcer directly tied to the response (receiving the blue car).
Why not A: Even in a home setting, this is an adult-directed drill with an arbitrary reinforcer unrelated to the learner's interests.
Why not B: This describes structured discrete-trial teaching with an SD, response, edible consequence and intertrial interval.
Why not C: Moving to the floor does not make this NET; it is still adult-led, rapid trials with arbitrary reinforcers, which is DTT.
Remember: Location alone does not make teaching naturalistic; NET follows the learner's interests and uses reinforcers naturally linked to the response.
Question 15 of 85
At a 2:00 p.m. session, a grandmother mentions that the client has not eaten breakfast or lunch because of a dental appointment that morning. What should the RBT do with this information?
Answer choices for question 15
AUse more edible reinforcers than the plan specifies, since the client is hungryBLeave it out of the note, since eating is not one of the client's targetsCWait to see whether the session data drop before mentioning it to anyoneDNote the caregiver's report in the session note and inform the supervisor per protocol
Answer: D. Hunger and a dental procedure can affect motivation and behavior, so the RBT documents and reports them.
Why not A: Changing how reinforcers are delivered is a plan change that requires the supervisor's direction.
Why not B: Variables that can affect performance should be documented whether or not they relate to a target behavior.
Why not C: The RBT reports the variable regardless of the data; the supervisor decides whether it explains any change.
Remember: Events such as missed meals or medical procedures are documented and reported because they can change motivation and session performance.
Question 16 of 85
In a token economy, a learner's only backup reinforcer has been stickers. Lately she ignores the stickers at exchange time and has stopped working for tokens. Several other preferred items were identified in her preference assessment and approved in the plan. What is the best step for the RBT?
Answer choices for question 16
ALet her choose an approved preferred item to work for before the session startsBRemove the token board and use only verbal praise from now onCGive her two tokens for each correct response instead of oneDLower the number of tokens needed but keep stickers as the only exchange item
Answer: A. Offering a choice among assessed preferences before the session restores the value of the tokens. Showing her chosen item helps keep her motivated.
Why not B: Abandoning the token system is a plan change that only the supervisor should decide. It also ignores the actual problem, which is the backup reinforcer.
Why not C: More tokens will not help if what the tokens buy is no longer valuable to her.
Why not D: Lowering the requirement does not fix a backup reinforcer she no longer wants.
Remember: Tokens work only as well as the backup reinforcers behind them, so offer a choice among currently preferred items.
Question 17 of 85
An RBT is checking whether the learner's response of touching her nose is under stimulus control of the instruction "touch nose." Which data pattern best shows this?
Answer choices for question 17
AShe touches her nose only when the RBT models touching his own noseBShe touches her nose at a high rate whenever her favorite snack is visibleCShe touches her nose when told "touch nose" and not when given other instructions such as "touch head"DShe touches her nose after nearly every instruction the RBT gives
Answer: C. The response reliably occurs in the presence of the SD and does not occur in the presence of other stimuli, which defines stimulus control.
Why not A: This shows the response is controlled by the model prompt, not the verbal instruction. This is a sign of prompt dependence.
Why not B: The snack's presence may affect motivation. However, the response is not occurring because of the instruction, so this is not control by the intended SD.
Why not D: Responding to every instruction shows the response is not discriminated. The specific instruction is not controlling it.
Remember: Stimulus control is shown when a response reliably occurs in the presence of the SD and does not occur in its absence or in the presence of S-deltas.
Question 18 of 85
An RBT is about to present the next discrete trial, but the learner is looking out the window. What should the RBT do before presenting the SD?
Answer choices for question 18
AUse a full physical prompt to guide the learner's correct responseBGain the learner's attention, then present the SDCPresent the SD anyway and record an error if there is no responseDSkip this target and move on to a different program
Answer: B. The learner must be attending for the SD to work as a cue, so the RBT should secure attending, such as eye contact or orienting to the materials, first.
Why not A: Prompting the response does not fix the problem that the learner never attended to the instruction.
Why not C: A learner who is not attending may not have perceived the SD, so the data would not reflect the skill.
Why not D: Switching programs does not address attending, and the next SD would face the same problem.
Remember: Make sure the learner is attending before you deliver the SD; otherwise the trial does not test the target skill.
Question 19 of 85
A behavior plan calls for most-to-least prompting to teach putting on a jacket. Which sequence of prompts, from first used to last used, fits this procedure?
Answer choices for question 19
APartial physical, full physical, gestural, modelBFull physical, model, partial physical, gesturalCGestural, model, partial physical, full physicalDFull physical, partial physical, model, gestural
Answer: D. Most-to-least starts with the most intrusive prompt and systematically fades to less intrusive prompts before independence.
Why not A: This sequence increases intrusiveness and then jumps around rather than fading steadily from most to least help.
Why not B: Model is placed above partial physical here, so the prompts do not decrease steadily in intrusiveness.
Why not C: This order moves from less to more intrusive, which is the least-to-most sequence, the reverse of what the plan requires.
Remember: Most-to-least prompting begins with full physical guidance and fades through partial physical, model, and gestural prompts toward independence.
Question 20 of 85
Which schedule of reinforcement typically produces behavior that is MOST resistant to extinction?
Answer choices for question 20
AContinuous reinforcement (CRF)BVariable ratio (VR)CFixed interval (FI)DFixed ratio (FR)
Answer: B. Under VR, reinforcement comes after an unpredictable number of responses. Unreinforced responses are normal for the learner, so responding persists longest when reinforcement stops.
Why not A: CRF is ideal for teaching new skills. However, behavior on CRF extinguishes quickly because the learner notices immediately when reinforcement stops.
Why not C: FI produces a scalloped pattern with pauses after reinforcement. It is not the most extinction-resistant schedule.
Why not D: FR produces high response rates. However, the predictable requirement makes the loss of reinforcement easier to detect than on a variable schedule.
Remember: Variable ratio schedules produce high, steady responding that is the most resistant to extinction, while continuous reinforcement extinguishes fastest.
Question 21 of 85
Two RBTs record the frequency of screaming during the same session. One scores 3 and the other scores 9. The definition reads: "Screaming: any vocalization louder than conversational volume." What change to the definition would most directly resolve this discrepancy?
Answer choices for question 21
ARecord the average of the two counts so the data are balancedBSwitch from frequency recording to partial-interval recording for screamingCAdd that screaming usually occurs when the client wants a preferred itemDAdd an offset rule, such as a new episode counted only after 3 seconds with no screaming
Answer: D. Without onset and offset criteria, one observer may count a long scream as one episode while another counts each burst separately.
Why not A: Averaging hides the disagreement and produces data that do not reflect what actually happened.
Why not B: Changing the measurement system does not fix a definition that leaves episode boundaries unclear.
Why not C: A likely function does not tell observers when one episode ends and the next begins.
Remember: Clear onset and offset criteria tell observers when one episode ends and another begins, which keeps counts consistent.
Question 22 of 85
After 10 baseline sessions, the supervisor begins a new intervention for a client's elopement starting with session 11. When updating the line graph, what should the RBT do?
Answer choices for question 22
AConnect the session 10 and session 11 data points so the data path stays continuousBStart a new graph and renumber the intervention sessions beginning at 1CDraw a vertical phase-change line between sessions 10 and 11 and do not connect data across itDDraw a horizontal line across the graph at the baseline average
Answer: C. A vertical line marks the condition change, and data paths are broken at that line so each phase can be judged on its own.
Why not A: Data points are not connected across a phase change. Connecting them would blur the comparison between baseline and intervention.
Why not B: Splitting the data onto separate graphs makes it harder to compare baseline and intervention directly. Session numbering should continue.
Why not D: A horizontal line can show a mean or a criterion, but it does not mark when the intervention changed.
Remember: Mark each change in conditions with a vertical phase-change line and never connect data points across it.
Question 23 of 85
For which target behavior would a differential reinforcement of low rates (DRL) procedure be LEAST appropriate?
Answer choices for question 23
ARaising a hand to answer questions many times per lessonBAsking a peer to play several times per minuteCHitting own head with a closed fistDRequesting snacks repeatedly throughout the session
Answer: C. DRL reinforces a lower but still occurring rate. A dangerous self-injurious behavior should not be allowed to continue at any rate.
Why not A: Hand raising is acceptable at moderate levels and only a problem when it is too frequent, so DRL fits this behavior well.
Why not B: Asking peers to play is a desirable social behavior that only needs to happen less often, which is exactly what DRL targets.
Why not D: Requesting snacks is fine in moderation, so reducing it to an acceptable rate with DRL is reasonable.
Remember: DRL is for behaviors that are acceptable at lower rates, never for dangerous behaviors that should be reduced to zero.
Question 24 of 85
Which description best matches noncontingent reinforcement (NCR)?
Answer choices for question 24
AWithholding the reinforcer that previously followed the problem behaviorBDelivering a reinforcer on a time-based schedule regardless of the learner's behaviorCDelivering a reinforcer each time the learner uses an appropriate replacement behaviorDDelivering a reinforcer only after a set interval passes with no problem behavior
Answer: B. NCR provides the reinforcer on a fixed or variable time schedule, independent of behavior, which reduces the motivation for problem behavior.
Why not A: This describes extinction, which is a consequence procedure, not an antecedent intervention.
Why not C: This describes differential reinforcement of alternative behavior (DRA), which is contingent on a specific response.
Why not D: This describes differential reinforcement of other behavior (DRO), which makes reinforcement depend on the behavior not occurring.
Remember: NCR delivers the reinforcer on a time schedule regardless of behavior, so the learner no longer needs problem behavior to access it.
Question 25 of 85
On Monday a client engaged in vocal outbursts 12 times in a 30-minute session. On Tuesday the client did so 15 times in a 50-minute session. Which statement is accurate?
Answer choices for question 25
AThe rates were about equal because both sessions had over 10 outbursts.BMonday had the higher rate, 0.4 per minute versus 0.3 per minute.CThe data cannot be compared because the sessions were different lengths.DTuesday had the higher rate because the client had more outbursts.
Answer: B. Monday: 12 ÷ 30 = 0.4 per minute; Tuesday: 15 ÷ 50 = 0.3 per minute.
Why not A: Similar counts do not mean similar rates; the rates are 0.4 and 0.3 per minute.
Why not C: Converting counts to rate is exactly what allows comparison across sessions of different lengths.
Why not D: Raw counts cannot be compared when session lengths differ; Tuesday's rate was 15 ÷ 50 = 0.3 per minute.
Remember: Use rate, not raw count, to compare behavior across observation periods of different lengths.
Question 26 of 85
A learner was taught to label pictures of dogs as "dog." He now says "dog" when shown pictures of cats, horses, and cows as well. Which approach should the RBT expect the BCBA's program to use?
Answer choices for question 26
AKeep reinforcing "dog" for all four-legged animals, since this shows successful generalizationBRemove all non-dog pictures from teaching so the learner only practices correct responsesCPresent dogs mixed with other animals, reinforcing "dog" only for dogs and withholding reinforcement for "dog" in response to other animalsDTeach additional dog pictures only, so the learner sees more varied examples of dogs
Answer: C. Including non-examples as S-deltas and reinforcing differentially narrows the response to dogs only.
Why not A: Saying "dog" for cats and horses is overgeneralization, which is a labeling error. Reinforcing it would strengthen the error.
Why not B: Removing the non-examples eliminates the S-deltas needed for discrimination. The learner never learns that "dog" does not apply to other animals.
Why not D: Adding only more dog examples widens the range of stimuli that evoke "dog." Without non-examples, it does not teach the learner when not to say it.
Remember: To correct overgeneralization, include non-examples as S-deltas and reinforce the response only in the presence of true examples.
Question 27 of 85
After a session, an RBT notices that a handwritten session note in the client's paper file lists 15 trials when 12 trials were actually run. What is the appropriate way to correct the error?
Answer choices for question 27
ADraw a single line through the error, write the correct number, and add initials and the dateBCover the incorrect number with correction fluid and write the correct number on topCScribble over the number until it cannot be read, then write the correct value beside itDRewrite the entire note on a new form and shred the original version
Answer: A. A single-line strike keeps the original entry readable and creates a transparent, traceable correction.
Why not B: Correction fluid hides the original entry, which undermines the record's integrity and can look like tampering.
Why not C: Making the original entry unreadable removes the audit trail that legal records require.
Why not D: Destroying the original record and replacing it can be treated as altering records, even when the intent is to fix a mistake.
Remember: Correct record errors with a single line, the right information, and your initials and date, and never obscure or destroy the original.
Question 28 of 85
Over two weeks, an RBT's data show the client's self-injury increasing. The trend began soon after the caregiver reported that the psychiatrist raised the client's medication dose. The caregiver asks, "Do you think the higher dose is causing this? Should I go back to the old dose?" What is the RBT's most appropriate response?
Answer choices for question 28
ASuggest that the caregiver return to the previous dose, since the data show a clear link to the increaseBTell the caregiver the data show the new dose is causing the self-injury, so she should call the doctorCExplain that you can't advise on medication, suggest she talk with the prescriber, then promptly tell the supervisorDAvoid discussing it and wait to raise the medication question at the next scheduled supervision meeting
Answer: C. The RBT stays within scope, points the caregiver to the prescriber, reports the concern and data trend promptly, and documents the exchange.
Why not A: Advising on medication dosing is far outside the RBT's scope and could put the client at risk.
Why not B: The RBT should not draw causal conclusions from the data. Interpretation belongs to the supervisor, and medication decisions belong to the prescriber.
Why not D: A rising trend in self-injury linked in time to a medication change needs prompt reporting, not a delay until routine supervision.
Remember: RBTs never advise on medication or decide what caused a behavior change; they refer medication questions to the prescriber and report promptly to the supervisor.
Question 29 of 85
At the end of a home session, a mother tells the RBT that her son has started hitting his younger sister. She asks the RBT to add hitting as a new target. What should the RBT do?
Answer choices for question 29
AWait to mention the request at the next monthly team meeting with the supervisorBExplain that services can only address the goals already written in the planCAdd hitting to the data sheet and begin tracking it during the next sessionDTell the mother the concern will go to the supervisor, and relay it to the supervisor promptly
Answer: D. The RBT acknowledges the caregiver and passes the concern quickly to the supervisor, who decides whether and how to address it.
Why not A: A new problem behavior is information the supervisor needs promptly, not weeks later.
Why not B: This dismisses a valid caregiver concern. Treatment plans can be revised, and the supervisor needs this information.
Why not C: Adding targets and defining behaviors is the supervisor's job. The RBT should not change the program on their own.
Remember: When a caregiver raises a concern or request, acknowledge it and pass it to the supervisor promptly rather than acting on it or dismissing it.
Question 30 of 85
Sam's behavior plan tells the RBT to say "No hitting" firmly each time Sam hits a peer. This consequence was intended to decrease hitting. Over two weeks, Sam's hitting rises from about 4 to about 9 times per session. Which interpretation and action is best?
Answer choices for question 30
AThe reprimand is positive punishment because something is added after hitting, so continue as written.BThe increase is an extinction burst, so continue the plan unchanged.CThe reprimand likely acts as reinforcement, such as attention, so report the data to the supervisor.DThe reprimand needs more intensity, so the RBT should make it louder and firmer.
Answer: C. A consequence that increases behavior is working as reinforcement. The RBT should share the data with the supervisor rather than change the plan alone.
Why not A: Punishment is defined by a decrease in behavior, not by adding a stimulus. Hitting increased, so the reprimand is not working as punishment.
Why not B: No extinction is in place because the RBT delivers a consequence after every hit. A steady rise over two weeks is not a burst.
Why not D: Changing a procedure without supervisor direction is outside the RBT role. Louder attention could also strengthen the hitting further.
Remember: A consequence counts as punishment only if the behavior decreases, and RBTs report data showing an intervention is not working instead of changing it on their own.
Question 31 of 85
According to the Behavior Analyst Certification Board (BACB) RBT Ethics Code, RBTs may not give gifts to, or accept gifts from, clients or stakeholders above which monetary value?
Answer choices for question 31
A$10 (USD)B$5 (USD)C$25 (USD)D$50 (USD)
Answer: A. The RBT Ethics Code bars giving or accepting gifts with a monetary value of more than $10 (USD).
Why not B: This is lower than the actual limit. A gift worth $5 to $10 is still within the code.
Why not C: This is higher than the actual limit. A $25 gift would violate the code.
Why not D: This is far above the limit. It may reflect confusion with general workplace gift policies, not the BACB code.
Remember: RBTs do not give or accept gifts worth more than $10 (USD) to or from clients or stakeholders.
Question 32 of 85
As part of a social-skills assessment, an RBT observes a learner at recess using a data sheet that defines peer initiations and responses to peer bids. Which action is appropriate for the RBT?
Answer choices for question 32
APick new social goals based on what was seen at recessBRecord initiations and responses as defined and report the data to the BCBACTell the parent that the learner has a significant social deficitDPrompt the learner to join peers to see what he can do with help
Answer: B. The RBT's role is to collect accurate data exactly as the assessment plan specifies and share it with the supervisor.
Why not A: Choosing goals is the supervising BCBA's job. The RBT supplies the data used to make that decision.
Why not C: Interpreting assessment results for caregivers is outside the RBT's scope. It must come from the supervisor.
Why not D: Prompting changes the learner's natural behavior, so the data no longer show his current independent social skills.
Remember: In skills assessments, the RBT collects accurate data as directed, and the supervisor interprets results and selects goals.
Question 33 of 85
During incidental teaching, a learner points to a bubble container. The RBT prompts, "Say bubbles." Before responding, the learner walks away and begins playing with blocks. What is the most appropriate action for the RBT?
Answer choices for question 33
AFollow the learner and keep prompting "bubbles" until the learner says itBBlock access to the blocks until the learner says "bubbles"CHand over the bubbles anyway and record the trial as correctDEnd the bubble episode and look for a teaching chance with the blocks
Answer: D. Incidental teaching depends on the learner's current motivation, so the RBT follows the learner's new interest and creates the next opportunity around the blocks.
Why not A: The learner's motivation for bubbles is gone, so insisting no longer fits incidental teaching and may make the activity aversive.
Why not B: Using the new item as leverage for a request about a different item ignores the learner's current interest.
Why not C: Recording a correct response that did not occur produces inaccurate data, and the bubbles are no longer wanted.
Remember: Incidental teaching follows the learner's current motivation; when interest shifts, move the teaching to the new activity.
Question 34 of 85
During a DTT trial, the RBT says, "Touch dog." The learner does not respond, so the RBT points to the dog card and the learner then touches it. How should the RBT score this trial?
Answer choices for question 34
AIncorrectBNo responseCIndependent correctDPrompted correct (gestural prompt)
Answer: D. The learner made the right response, but only after the RBT's pointing gesture, so it is recorded as prompted.
Why not A: The learner did touch the correct card, so this was not an error; it was a correct response that required help.
Why not B: The learner did respond after the prompt; a no-response score would leave out the prompted correct response that occurred.
Why not C: The learner touched the card only after a gestural prompt, so the response was not independent.
Remember: A correct response that follows a prompt is scored as prompted, not independent, so data show the learner's true level of independence.
Question 35 of 85
An RBT's supervisor added a new prompt-fading procedure to a client's plan. When reading the written program, the RBT realizes they are not sure how to deliver the prompts correctly. What is the best action?
Answer choices for question 35
AWatch an online video about prompting and run the program as best they canBContact the supervisor to ask for training or modeling before running itCAsk the client's parent how they think the prompts should be deliveredDSkip the program until the supervisor happens to observe a session
Answer: B. Identifying your own training needs and asking the supervisor for direction helps ensure the procedure is implemented as written.
Why not A: General internet material may not match the supervisor's procedure. Improvising risks implementing the program incorrectly.
Why not C: Caregivers are not responsible for clinical direction to the RBT. The supervisor who wrote the program should clarify it.
Why not D: Silently leaving a program out delays treatment. The supervisor also never learns that training is needed.
Remember: When you are unsure how to implement a procedure, seek training from your supervisor before running it rather than guessing or skipping it.
Question 36 of 85
An RBT helps run a functional analysis of hand flapping. The average responses per 10-minute session were: alone 14, attention 13, demand 12, play 13. Which function do these results most likely suggest?
Answer choices for question 36
ASocial positive reinforcement in the form of attentionBSocial negative reinforcement in the form of escape from tasksCAutomatic reinforcement produced by the behavior itselfDSocial positive reinforcement in the form of access to tangibles
Answer: C. High rates in all conditions, including alone where no social consequences are available, suggest the behavior is maintained by the sensory results it produces.
Why not A: Attention is unlikely because the rate in the attention condition was no higher than in the alone or play conditions.
Why not B: Escape is unlikely because rates during demands were not elevated compared with conditions that had no tasks.
Why not D: There was no tangible condition, and the behavior was high even when no items or people were present, which does not support a tangible function.
Remember: Behavior that stays high across all conditions, including alone, suggests automatic reinforcement.
Question 37 of 85
During discrete-trial teaching, a client responded correctly and independently on 14 of 20 trials. What should the RBT record as the percentage correct?
Answer choices for question 37
A70%B60%C30%D14%
Answer: A. Percentage = (correct trials ÷ total trials) × 100 = (14 ÷ 20) × 100 = 70%.
Why not B: This does not match 14 ÷ 20 and reflects a calculation error.
Why not C: 30% is the percentage of trials that were not correct (6 ÷ 20).
Why not D: This treats the raw count as a percentage without dividing by total trials.
Remember: Percentage correct is the number correct divided by the total number of opportunities, multiplied by 100.
Question 38 of 85
An RBT records three episodes of head rubbing. Episode 1 runs from 10:00:00 to 10:00:20. Episode 2 runs from 10:01:05 to 10:01:15. Episode 3 begins at 10:03:15. Defining IRT as the time from the end of one episode to the start of the next, what is the mean IRT?
Answer choices for question 38
A82.5 secondsB97.5 secondsC15 secondsD165 seconds
Answer: A. IRT 1 = 10:01:05 − 10:00:20 = 45 s. IRT 2 = 10:03:15 − 10:01:15 = 120 s. Mean = (45 + 120) ÷ 2 = 82.5 s.
Why not B: This measures from the start of one episode to the start of the next (65 s and 130 s), which does not follow the stated end-to-start definition.
Why not C: This is the mean duration of episodes 1 and 2 (20 s and 10 s), which confuses duration with interresponse time.
Why not D: This is the total of the two IRTs (45 + 120); it was never divided by the number of IRTs to find the mean.
Remember: Calculate IRT from the end of one response to the start of the next, then average across all gaps between responses.
Question 39 of 85
A client has about two tantrums per day. Some tantrums last 1 minute and others last 40 minutes. The team wants the data to show whether the intervention is making tantrums less severe in terms of time. Which measure should the RBT record?
Answer choices for question 39
ALatency of tantrumsBInterresponse time between tantrumsCDuration of each tantrumDFrequency of tantrums
Answer: C. When the length of episodes varies widely and length is the concern, timing each episode from onset to offset captures the change.
Why not A: Latency measures the time from a cue to the start of a response. It does not capture how long tantrums last.
Why not B: IRT shows how far apart tantrums occur, not how long each one lasts.
Why not D: A count of about two per day could stay the same even while tantrums become much shorter, so it would miss the change the team cares about.
Remember: Use duration recording when how long a behavior lasts matters more than how often it occurs.
Question 40 of 85
An RBT uses backward chaining to teach a 5-step task analysis for putting on a T-shirt. The learner is currently being taught only the final step, pulling the shirt down over the torso. How should the RBT handle steps 1 through 4 on each trial?
Answer choices for question 40
ATeach step 1 to mastery first and add the later steps one at a timeBSkip steps 1-4 and have the learner practice only pulling down a shirt already on the bodyCLet the learner try all steps alone first and prompt only after an errorDComplete or fully prompt steps 1-4 with the learner, then have the learner do step 5 independently
Answer: D. In backward chaining, the earlier steps are completed for or with the learner, so the learner sees every step. The learner then finishes the chain and contacts the natural reinforcer.
Why not A: Starting with the first step and building forward is forward chaining. Backward chaining starts with the last step.
Why not B: The learner should experience the whole chain on each trial so every step is linked. Practicing the last step in isolation does not do that.
Why not C: This describes total-task chaining with least-to-most prompting. It is not backward chaining.
Remember: Backward chaining teaches the last step first, but the learner still goes through all the earlier steps, completed or fully prompted, on every trial.
Question 41 of 85
In discrimination training, what is the term for a stimulus in whose presence a particular response will NOT be reinforced?
Answer choices for question 41
AMotivating operationBDiscriminative stimulus (SD)CConditioned reinforcerDS-delta
Answer: D. An S-delta is a stimulus in whose presence the response has not been reinforced, so responding becomes less likely when it is present.
Why not A: A motivating operation changes how valuable a reinforcer is. It does not signal whether reinforcement is available for a response.
Why not B: An SD signals that reinforcement is available for the response, which is the opposite of what is described.
Why not C: A conditioned reinforcer is a consequence that strengthens behavior. It is not an antecedent signaling that reinforcement is unavailable.
Remember: An SD signals that reinforcement is available, while an S-delta signals that it is not.
Question 42 of 85
Liam has just met the mastery criterion for labeling 10 animals. His BCBA's plan says the target now moves to maintenance. Which action by the RBT best fits a maintenance procedure?
Answer choices for question 42
AStop presenting the animal targets entirely, since Liam has already mastered themBKeep running the targets every trial block with full prompts and continuous reinforcementCRe-teach the animal labels from the beginning using shaping of each wordDPresent the targets periodically as the plan specifies, with thinner reinforcement, and record data
Answer: D. Maintenance involves less frequent practice, intermittent reinforcement, and ongoing data collection to confirm the skill persists.
Why not A: Dropping mastered skills completely risks losing them. Maintenance requires continued, though less frequent, practice.
Why not B: This continues acquisition-level teaching and fails to thin prompts and reinforcement after mastery.
Why not C: Shaping is an acquisition procedure for new behavior and is not appropriate for a skill Liam already performs independently.
Remember: Maintenance targets are practiced less often, with thinner reinforcement and few or no prompts, but they are never simply dropped.
Question 43 of 85
A client's daily count of elopement attempts over six sessions is 2, 14, 3, 12, 1, and 15. Which description of the graphed data is most accurate?
Answer choices for question 43
AA stable pattern at a low levelBA steady increasing trendCA steady decreasing trendDHigh variability with no clear trend
Answer: D. The data swing widely between low and high values, so variability is high and no consistent direction is evident.
Why not A: Stable data would cluster closely together, but these values range from 1 to 15.
Why not B: The values do not rise session after session; they repeatedly jump up and drop back down.
Why not C: The values do not fall consistently, and several of the later points are among the highest.
Remember: When data points zig-zag widely, describe the pattern as highly variable rather than forcing a trend onto it, and share it with the supervisor.
Question 44 of 85
A client's plan defines aggression as hitting, kicking or biting others. Over several sessions, the client has started spitting at staff often. The plan says nothing about spitting. What should the RBT do?
Answer choices for question 44
ARecord spitting objectively apart from the aggression data and promptly ask the supervisor for directionBCount spitting as aggression, since it is directed at people like the defined behaviorsCWrite a definition for spitting and begin planned ignoring of it in each sessionDLeave spitting unrecorded, because only behaviors defined in the plan are measured
Answer: A. The RBT keeps the existing data intact, documents the new behavior objectively and asks the supervisor how to define and measure it.
Why not B: Adding spitting to the count on your own changes the operational definition and makes the aggression data inconsistent over time.
Why not C: Writing definitions and choosing reduction procedures are the supervisor's responsibilities, not the RBT's.
Why not D: A new, frequent problem behavior is important clinical information. Ignoring it leaves the supervisor without needed data.
Remember: When a behavior falls outside the written definitions, document it objectively without altering existing measures and get the supervisor's direction promptly.
Question 45 of 85
An RBT is collecting ABC data. The client's mother tells him it is time to turn off the TV. The client screams for 20 seconds. The mother says, "Okay, five more minutes," and leaves the TV on. What should the RBT record in the consequence column?
Answer choices for question 45
AClient was upset about losing TV timeBMother said "Okay, five more minutes" and left the TV onCClient screamed for 20 secondsDMother said it was time to turn off the TV
Answer: B. The consequence is what happened immediately after the behavior, which here was the mother's statement and the TV staying on.
Why not A: This is an assumption about the client's feelings, not an observable event, so it should not be recorded in any ABC column.
Why not C: This is the behavior itself and belongs in the behavior column, not the consequence column.
Why not D: This is what happened right before the behavior, so it belongs in the antecedent column.
Remember: In ABC recording, the consequence is the observable event that immediately follows the behavior.
Question 46 of 85
An RBT is using 10-second partial-interval recording for screaming. During one interval, the client screams for about 2 seconds in the middle of the interval and is quiet the rest of the time. How should the RBT score this interval?
Answer choices for question 46
AWrite 2 seconds in the interval boxBScore it as a nonoccurrenceCScore it as an occurrenceDScore it only if screaming is occurring when the interval ends
Answer: C. In partial-interval recording, an interval is scored if the behavior happens at any point during it, however briefly.
Why not A: Interval methods record whether the behavior occurred in each interval, not how long it lasted.
Why not B: This applies the whole-interval rule, which requires the behavior to last the entire interval.
Why not D: This is the momentary time sampling rule, not the partial-interval rule.
Remember: In partial-interval recording, any occurrence during the interval, however brief, scores the whole interval.
Question 47 of 85
In a small rural town, an RBT is the only provider available to a client. The client's mother is also the RBT's own child's second-grade teacher, so they will meet outside sessions. Which plan best reduces the risk?
Answer choices for question 47
AContinue without telling anyone, since the overlap cannot be avoidedBRefuse the case, even though the client would then go without servicesCInform the supervisor, set clear boundaries, and discuss services only in sessionsDHave the mother sign a waiver releasing the RBT from the code's requirements
Answer: C. When a multiple relationship cannot be avoided, the RBT involves the supervisor and keeps boundaries. Talking about services only in session protects objectivity and confidentiality.
Why not A: An unavoidable multiple relationship still must be disclosed to the supervisor. Silence removes the oversight needed to manage the risk.
Why not B: Refusing may harm the client, which goes against the principle of benefiting others. The code allows managing unavoidable situations under supervision instead.
Why not D: Clients and stakeholders cannot waive the RBT Ethics Code. A waiver does nothing to reduce the actual risks.
Remember: When a multiple relationship is unavoidable, inform your supervisor and actively manage boundaries to protect the client.
Question 48 of 85
An RBT's client begins to engage in aggression that is specifically addressed in the client's written crisis plan, which the supervising BCBA trained the RBT to implement. What should the RBT do?
Answer choices for question 48
AWait to intervene until the supervisor can be reached for guidance.BModify the plan's steps based on how upset the client appears.CImplement the crisis procedures exactly as written and trained.DUse a de-escalation technique the RBT learned at a previous job.
Answer: C. RBTs carry out crisis and emergency procedures as designed and trained by their supervisor, without adding or changing steps.
Why not A: The plan exists so the RBT can act right away, and delaying a trained crisis response puts the client and others at risk.
Why not B: RBTs do not change crisis procedures on their own judgment, and any concerns about the plan should be reported to the supervisor.
Why not D: Procedures that are not in the client's plan have not been approved by the supervisor and may be unsafe or ineffective for this client.
Remember: In a crisis, the RBT implements the supervisor-designed crisis plan as written and trained.
Question 49 of 85
During a home session, a parent tells the RBT, "He already knows his colors. Can you skip that goal and start teaching him to write his name?" What is the RBT's best response?
Answer choices for question 49
AThank the parent, explain that the supervisor decides goal changes, and promptly share the request with the supervisorBAgree and switch to name writing today, since the parent knows the child bestCBegin name writing during home sessions only while continuing the color goal at the clinicDExplain that the supervisor chose the goal, so it must stay, and there is no need to pass the request along
Answer: A. The RBT listens and respects the parent's input but sends questions about services to the supervisor, who decides whether to change goals.
Why not B: Changing targets on their own is outside the RBT's role; goal changes are clinical decisions made by the supervisor.
Why not C: Adding an unplanned target in any setting is still an unauthorized program change made without the supervisor.
Why not D: Brushing off the request fails to collaborate with the family; caregiver concerns must be passed to the supervisor.
Remember: When a caregiver asks to change a goal, acknowledge the input and send it to the supervisor rather than deciding yourself.
Question 50 of 85
An RBT has collected two weeks of ABC data in a family's home. In about 80% of entries, the child's tantrums were followed by the mother comforting or talking to the child. The mother looks at the data sheet and asks, "So he's doing this for attention, right? What should I do about it?" What is the best response from the RBT?
Answer choices for question 50
ASuggest she start ignoring the tantrums at home for a week so they can see whether attention is what keeps them going.BConfirm that the tantrums are for attention, because attention followed most episodes in the ABC data.CTell her the function cannot be known until the RBT sets up a functional analysis in the home next week.DSay the supervisor will interpret the data and decide on next steps, and pass her questions along to the supervisor.
Answer: D. The RBT gathers data and refers questions about function and treatment to the supervisor, who interprets assessment results and writes the plan.
Why not A: This recommends an extinction-based intervention and manipulates conditions without a plan or supervision. Both are outside the RBT's role.
Why not B: Descriptive data show what tends to follow behavior, not what causes it. Deciding the function is the supervisor's job, not the RBT's.
Why not C: The RBT does not decide whether an FA is needed or run one independently. FA components are carried out only under close supervision when the supervisor arranges them.
Remember: ABC data show patterns, not proof of function; the RBT gathers the data and refers questions about function and treatment to the supervisor.
Question 51 of 85
A parent is using extinction for her son's attention-maintained screaming at bedtime. On most nights she does not respond, but every few nights she goes in and comforts him after about 20 minutes of screaming. What is the most likely result?
Answer choices for question 51
AThe screaming will stop quickly because extinction is used on most nightsBThe screaming will become more persistent and harder to extinguishCThe screaming will decrease steadily, just a little more slowly than plannedDThe screaming will be replaced by a more appropriate way to ask for comfort
Answer: B. Giving in now and then places the behavior on intermittent reinforcement. It also teaches him that long bouts of screaming eventually pay off, which makes the behavior more resistant to extinction.
Why not A: Extinction requires that the reinforcer never follows the behavior. Using it on most nights is not enough, and the occasional reinforcement undermines it.
Why not C: Occasional reinforcement does more than slow progress. It actively strengthens the behavior's persistence.
Why not D: Extinction alone does not teach a replacement behavior. A new behavior would have to be taught and reinforced directly, for example through DRA or FCT.
Remember: Extinction must be applied consistently, because occasional reinforcement makes problem behavior more persistent.
Question 52 of 85
Leo's attention-maintained hitting was reduced by teaching him to tap an adult's shoulder for attention while hitting was placed on extinction. Hitting stayed near zero for weeks. Then a new staff member began ignoring Leo's shoulder taps, and Leo started hitting again. What is this an example of?
Answer choices for question 52
AAn extinction burstBSpontaneous recoveryCResurgenceDResponse generalization
Answer: C. Resurgence is the return of a previously reduced behavior when a more recently reinforced alternative behavior is placed on extinction.
Why not A: An extinction burst happens when extinction of a behavior first begins. Hitting had already been on extinction for weeks.
Why not B: Spontaneous recovery is a behavior reappearing after time passes under extinction. Here the hitting returned because the alternative behavior stopped being reinforced.
Why not D: Response generalization is the appearance of new, untrained behaviors similar to a trained one. It does not describe an old problem behavior returning.
Remember: Resurgence happens when a replacement behavior stops being reinforced and the old problem behavior returns, so replacement behaviors must be reinforced consistently.
Question 53 of 85
A plan uses DRO with 2-minute intervals: a token after each interval with no spitting. Several times the client is screaming when an interval ends but has not spat, so the RBT delivers the token as written. Over a week, spitting decreases but screaming at the end of intervals increases. What is the best explanation and next step?
Answer choices for question 53
AScreaming is response variation, which shows DRO is working, so the RBT should add DRI for quiet behavior during intervalsBScreaming is an extinction burst for spitting, so the RBT should keep delivering tokens and wait for screaming to fade on its ownCDRO reinforces only the absence of spitting, so tokens can strengthen whatever else is happening; the RBT should report the data to the supervisorDScreaming is resurgence caused by extinguishing spitting, so the RBT should start withholding tokens whenever screaming occurs
Answer: C. Because DRO does not specify a replacement behavior, the reinforcer can accidentally strengthen other behavior at the time of delivery. The supervisor decides how to change the plan.
Why not A: Response variation describes new behaviors appearing under extinction, and the RBT may not add a DRI or any other procedure without the supervisor.
Why not B: A burst is an increase in the behavior that is on extinction, which is spitting. A different behavior rising with each token points to accidental reinforcement.
Why not D: Resurgence requires a replacement behavior to lose reinforcement, which did not happen here. Changing the delivery rule on their own is also outside the RBT's role.
Remember: Because DRO reinforces only the absence of one behavior, it can accidentally strengthen other problem behaviors, and such data patterns must go to the supervisor.
Question 54 of 85
A parent tells an RBT that a friend's child 'lost his autism diagnosis' after a year of ABA. The parent asks whether ABA will cure their son too. Which response by the RBT is most appropriate?
Answer choices for question 54
A"Yes. With enough therapy hours, most kids lose the diagnosis, and your son is on track."B"Every child's progress is different, so I can't promise outcomes. Let's bring this question to our supervisor."C"ABA really only helps young children, so it's hard to say whether it'll work for him."D"He's learning so fast that he'll likely catch up with his peers within the year."
Answer: B. This avoids misleading claims and stays within the RBT's role. It sends outcome questions to the supervisor, which is accurate and honest.
Why not A: This makes an exaggerated, unsupported promise about outcomes. It misrepresents what behavior analysis can guarantee for an individual.
Why not C: This is an inaccurate statement about behavior analysis, which is used across ages. It misinforms the parent instead of referring the question appropriately.
Why not D: This predicts a specific outcome the RBT has no basis to guarantee. It overstates progress and sets false expectations.
Remember: RBTs never promise cures or specific outcomes and refer questions about prognosis to their supervisor.
Question 55 of 85
Which statement best describes procedural fidelity (also called treatment integrity)?
Answer choices for question 55
AThe degree to which recorded data match the true behaviorBThe degree to which a client uses a skill across new settingsCThe degree to which an intervention is carried out exactly as writtenDThe degree to which two observers record the same data
Answer: C. Procedural fidelity measures how closely the implementer follows the written behavior-change plan.
Why not A: This describes data accuracy, which concerns measurement rather than how the intervention is implemented.
Why not B: Using a skill in new settings, people, or materials describes generalization.
Why not D: This describes interobserver agreement (IOA), which checks measurement, not how the intervention is delivered.
Remember: Procedural fidelity is about whether the plan is implemented as written; IOA is about whether the data are recorded consistently.
Question 56 of 85
During a scheduled weekly maintenance probe, a client who mastered writing her first name two months ago responds correctly on only 2 of 5 trials. What should the RBT do?
Answer choices for question 56
AStop probing the skill so the client does not become frustrated by repeated errorsBIncrease probes to daily and wait until the next scheduled supervision meeting to mention the changeCRepeat the probe until the client writes her name correctly five times, then record that final probeDRecord the probe data accurately and promptly inform the supervisor so the BCBA can decide on next steps
Answer: D. The RBT reports the skill loss with accurate data. The BCBA decides whether to return the target to acquisition or adjust the plan.
Why not A: Removing the target without direction leaves the skill loss untreated and is a plan change the RBT cannot make alone.
Why not B: The RBT would be modifying the plan without authorization and delaying communication about a clinically important change.
Why not C: This misrepresents the client's actual performance and hides the loss of the skill that the supervisor needs to know about.
Remember: When a maintenance target drops, the RBT records the data honestly and tells the supervisor; the BCBA decides whether to move it back to acquisition.
Question 57 of 85
During a session, an RBT misses recording 10 minutes of frequency data because the client needed close physical guidance in the parking lot. The RBT is completing the data sheet afterward. What is the most ethical action?
Answer choices for question 57
ARecord only the data observed and note why the interval is missingBLeave the interval blank without any explanationCCopy the counts from the same period of the previous sessionDEstimate the missed counts based on the client's usual rate
Answer: A. Accurate data with an honest note about the gap reflects integrity and lets the supervisor interpret the data correctly.
Why not B: An unexplained gap is incomplete; the supervisor needs to know why data are missing.
Why not C: Copying earlier data fabricates information and can mislead the supervisor's treatment decisions.
Why not D: Estimated numbers presented as observed data misrepresent what happened and violate integrity.
Remember: Never estimate or fill in data you did not observe; record what happened and document gaps honestly.
Question 58 of 85
Over several months, an RBT and a client's mother have become close friends who meet for coffee on weekends. The RBT notices she now hesitates to record that the mother is skipping the home program, because she doesn't want her friend to look bad. Which statement best describes the situation and the correct response?
Answer choices for question 58
AThere is no violation, because the friendship began after services had startedBShe can resolve it by recording data that reflect the mother's perspectiveCIt is a concern only if money or gifts have been exchanged between themDIt is a multiple relationship harming her objectivity; she should tell her supervisor
Answer: D. Her hesitation to record accurate data shows the friendship is compromising her work. The code directs her to inform her supervisor and work to resolve it.
Why not A: A multiple relationship can develop at any point. The timing does not make the friendship acceptable.
Why not B: Shaping data to suit a stakeholder is a separate integrity violation. Data must be recorded accurately whatever the relationship.
Why not C: Multiple relationships do not require money. Mixing a friendship with a professional role is the issue.
Remember: A key risk of multiple relationships is lost objectivity; if one develops, tell your supervisor and work to resolve it.
Question 59 of 85
A client's demand-fading plan increased tasks from 2 to 4 per session after problem behavior stayed low. At 4 tasks, problem behavior rose sharply across two sessions. The plan states what to do if a step fails. Which action is most consistent with demand fading?
Answer choices for question 59
AIncrease to 6 tasks so the client learns to tolerate more work quicklyBRemove all demands for the rest of the week so the client can calm downCStay at 4 tasks and rely on extinction until the behavior stopsDReturn to the last successful level of 2 tasks and then increase in smaller steps
Answer: D. Demand fading backs up to the level where behavior was low and reintroduces demands more gradually.
Why not A: Increasing demands when problem behavior is already high is the opposite of demand fading and is likely to worsen behavior.
Why not B: Removing all demands abandons the procedure and may reinforce escape behavior. Demand fading keeps demands present at a tolerable level.
Why not C: Holding at a level that produces high problem behavior is not demand fading. Demand fading adjusts the demand level to keep behavior low.
Remember: In demand fading, if problem behavior rises at a new step, return to the last successful demand level and progress in smaller increments.
Question 60 of 85
An RBT holds up a red card and says, "What color?" When the learner says "red," the RBT delivers praise and a token. When the RBT holds up a blue card and the learner says "red," the RBT withholds reinforcement. Which procedure best describes what the RBT is doing?
Answer choices for question 60
ADiscrimination training: reinforcing the response in the presence of the SD and withholding it in the presence of the S-deltaBStimulus generalization training: reinforcing the same response across many similar stimuliCShaping: reinforcing closer and closer approximations of the target wordDResponse generalization: reinforcing new responses that serve the same function
Answer: A. Saying "red" is reinforced only when the red card is present, which brings the response under the control of that stimulus.
Why not B: Generalization training would reinforce "red" across varied red items. It would not withhold reinforcement for "red" when blue is shown.
Why not C: Shaping changes the form of a response over time. Here the response form stays the same and what changes is the stimulus present.
Why not D: Response generalization concerns untrained but similar responses. It does not involve reinforcing a response in one stimulus condition but not another.
Remember: Discrimination training is differential reinforcement: reinforce the response when the SD is present and withhold reinforcement when an S-delta is present.
Question 61 of 85
An RBT has finished a session note and needs to get it to the supervisor today. Which action best protects the client's confidential information?
Answer choices for question 61
AText a photo of the note to the supervisor from the RBT's personal phoneBLeave the paper note in the car overnight and hand it to the supervisor tomorrowCEmail the note from a personal email account, using only the client's initialsDSubmit the note through the employer's secure, approved documentation system
Answer: D. Approved secure systems are designed to meet confidentiality requirements for client health records.
Why not A: Personal phones and standard texting are usually not secure, approved systems for protected health information.
Why not B: Leaving records unattended in a vehicle risks loss or exposure, and it also delays submission.
Why not C: Initials plus session details can still identify a client, and a personal email account is not an approved, secure channel.
Remember: Store and send session notes only through secure, employer-approved systems, never through personal devices or accounts.
Question 62 of 85
During an in-home session, 6-year-old Mia throws toys mostly when her mother and the RBT are talking to each other. Each time, her mother turns to Mia and says, "Mia, stop that, you know better." Mia has no demands placed on her and already has her toys. What is the most likely function of the toy throwing?
Answer choices for question 62
AEscape from a nonpreferred taskBAccess to attention from an adultCAccess to a tangible itemDAutomatic sensory stimulation
Answer: B. The behavior occurs when adult attention is directed elsewhere and is consistently followed by her mother's attention, even though the attention is a reprimand.
Why not A: No demands are being placed on Mia, so there is nothing for her to escape.
Why not C: Mia already has her toys and receives no new item after throwing them.
Why not D: The behavior is tied to whether adults are attending to her, which points to a socially mediated function rather than automatic reinforcement.
Remember: Reprimands and other 'negative' attention can still reinforce attention-maintained behavior.
Question 63 of 85
A supervisor returns an RBT's session note that says, "Maya did great today and was very cooperative," and asks for a revision. Which revision best meets the expectation for objective notes?
Answer choices for question 63
AMaya followed 18 of 20 instructions within 10 seconds and had zero instances of elopementBMaya was in an excellent mood today and cooperated with nearly everything she was asked to doCMaya appeared happy and motivated during the session, which led to her strong overall complianceDMaya did much better than usual today and seemed to enjoy the activities that were presented
Answer: A. It replaces the judgment "cooperative" with specific, countable behaviors that another observer could verify.
Why not B: "Excellent mood" and "nearly everything" are still subjective and imprecise. No measurable data is given.
Why not C: This infers emotions and a cause for her behavior instead of reporting what was observed and measured.
Why not D: "Much better than usual" and "seemed to enjoy" are vague comparisons and guesses, not objective data.
Remember: Replace evaluative words like "great" or "cooperative" with the specific behaviors and data that led to that impression.
Question 64 of 85
An RBT is going through a stressful family situation and has slept very little for a week. During sessions she has missed prompts and twice failed to notice the client approaching the street. What should she do?
Answer choices for question 64
AKeep working normally and try harder to focus so the client's services are not disruptedBAsk the caregiver to watch the client more closely during sessionsCShorten her sessions without telling anyone the reasonDInform her supervisor and work out a plan, such as time off, so services are not compromised
Answer: D. When personal problems interfere with effective, safe service, the RBT should seek help and involve the supervisor.
Why not A: Continuing while impaired already led to safety lapses, so this does not protect the client.
Why not B: Shifting responsibility to the caregiver does not fix the RBT's impairment and is not an appropriate solution.
Why not C: Changing service delivery without disclosure lacks integrity and could cause billing and treatment problems.
Remember: If personal issues affect your performance, tell your supervisor and take steps so clients are not harmed.
Question 65 of 85
A supervisor asks an RBT to use permanent-product recording to measure one of a client's school-related behaviors. Which target is most appropriate for this method?
Answer choices for question 65
ANumber of times the client raises a hand during group instructionBNumber of math problems the client correctly completes on a worksheetCLatency for the client to begin a task after an instructionDTotal duration of the client's out-of-seat behavior
Answer: B. Completed worksheet problems are a lasting physical result that can be counted after the session ends.
Why not A: Hand raising leaves no lasting trace, so it must be counted with frequency recording while it happens.
Why not C: Latency must be timed live, from the instruction to the start of the response, and leaves no permanent product.
Why not D: Duration requires timing the behavior as it occurs, because being out of seat leaves no lasting product.
Remember: Choose permanent-product recording only when the behavior reliably leaves a tangible result that can be measured afterward.
Question 66 of 85
An RBT records the following during math practice. 2:04:30 instruction given; 2:04:50 client starts problem 1; 2:05:10 client finishes problem 1; 2:05:55 client starts problem 2; 2:06:20 client finishes problem 2. What is the interresponse time between problem 1 and problem 2?
Answer choices for question 66
A25 secondsB70 secondsC20 secondsD45 seconds
Answer: D. IRT runs from the end of one response to the start of the next: 2:05:10 to 2:05:55 is 45 seconds.
Why not A: This is the duration of problem 2 (2:05:55 to 2:06:20), not the time between the two responses.
Why not B: This measures from the end of problem 1 (2:05:10) to the end of problem 2 (2:06:20), which includes how long problem 2 took.
Why not C: This is the latency from the instruction (2:04:30) to the start of problem 1 (2:04:50), not the gap between responses.
Remember: To find IRT, measure from the moment one response ends to the moment the next response begins.
Question 67 of 85
A learner traces the letter A on bold dotted lines. Over several sessions, the RBT makes the dotted lines lighter and lighter until the learner writes the letter on a blank line with no dots. Which procedure is being used?
Answer choices for question 67
AProgressive time delayBShapingCMost-to-least promptingDStimulus fading
Answer: D. The dotted-line guide is a stimulus prompt that is gradually made less noticeable until the learner responds to the natural blank line.
Why not A: Time delay fades prompts by lengthening the wait between instruction and prompt, not by changing how visible the materials are.
Why not B: Shaping reinforces successive approximations of the response itself, whereas here the response stays the same and the antecedent material is changed.
Why not C: Most-to-least fades response prompts delivered by the teacher, such as physical guidance, not features built into the materials.
Remember: Stimulus fading gradually removes an exaggerated feature of the materials, while shaping gradually changes the response requirement.
Question 68 of 85
Over six sessions, a client's tantrum duration (in minutes) is 31, 29, 30, 28, 30, and 29. The goal is to reduce tantrum duration. A new RBT says, "The last session is lower than the first, so tantrums are going down." Which description of the data is most accurate?
Answer choices for question 68
AA decreasing trend, because the final point is lower than the first pointBA flat (zero) trend with low variabilityCHigh variability, because no two consecutive points are the sameDAn increasing trend, because the session 3 value is higher than the session 2 value
Answer: B. All values stay within a 3-minute range around 30 minutes with no consistent direction, so the data are stable and flat; the tantrums are not decreasing.
Why not A: Trend reflects the overall direction of all the points; a 2-minute difference between two points within a narrow, bouncing range does not show a downward direction.
Why not C: Small differences between points are normal; a range of only 28 to 31 minutes represents low variability.
Why not D: One upward step between two sessions does not define the direction of the whole data path.
Remember: Judge trend from the whole data path, not from two points; flat data mean the intervention is not yet producing a decrease.
Question 69 of 85
A 12-year-old client has a toileting accident during a small-group social skills session. Which response by the RBT best reflects treating the client with dignity and respect?
Answer choices for question 69
ACalmly and quietly bring the client to a private area to change, without discussing it in front of peersBAnnounce the accident to the group so peers know to stay away from the areaCHave the client clean up the area in front of the group as a natural consequenceDIgnore the accident until the session ends to avoid reinforcing it with attention
Answer: A. Handling the situation discreetly and promptly protects the client's privacy, health, and dignity.
Why not B: Publicly announcing the accident embarrasses the client and is unnecessary for safety.
Why not C: A public cleanup is humiliating and is not a procedure the RBT should invent on their own.
Why not D: Leaving the client in soiled clothing is harmful and undignified; discreet care does not require delaying help.
Remember: Handle personal-care situations privately and promptly so the client's dignity is protected.
Question 70 of 85
An RBT runs a whole-interval DRO with a 5-minute interval for spitting. The plan states that the interval resets whenever spitting occurs. The session starts at 10:00. The client spits at 10:03 and does not spit again. What is the earliest time the RBT should deliver reinforcement?
Answer choices for question 70
A10:05B10:10C10:08D10:15
Answer: C. With a resetting DRO, the full 5-minute interval restarts when spitting occurs: 10:03 + 5 minutes = 10:08, and no spitting occurred in that period.
Why not A: This is the end of the first scheduled interval. Spitting occurred within that interval, so no reinforcement is earned, and the reset contingency restarted timing at 10:03.
Why not B: This would be correct for a fixed DRO without a reset, where the next interval runs from 10:05 to 10:10. The plan instead restarts the 5-minute interval at the moment of spitting.
Why not D: Nothing in the procedure adds a penalty interval or skips an interval after the behavior. The only change is that the timer restarts at the moment of spitting.
Remember: In a resetting DRO, any occurrence of the target behavior restarts the full interval from that moment.
Question 71 of 85
Two clients on an RBT's caseload both hit others. Ana hits when she is told to clean up, and cleanup is then stopped. Ben hits peers who are holding toys he wants, and the peers drop the toys. Which statement is accurate?
Answer choices for question 71
ABecause both behaviors are hitting, they serve the same function and need the same intervention.BThe behaviors look the same but serve different functions, so the interventions will likely differ.CFunction should be assigned based on which hitting is more severe or causes more injury.DBoth behaviors are best classified as automatic because hitting is a physical action.
Answer: B. Ana's hitting produces escape from cleanup and Ben's produces access to toys, and function-based interventions target the specific maintaining consequence.
Why not A: What a behavior looks like does not determine why it occurs, and the consequences here differ.
Why not C: Severity affects priority and safety planning, but function is identified by the consequence that maintains the behavior.
Why not D: Both behaviors are followed by clear social consequences, so neither one is best described as automatically maintained.
Remember: Function is defined by the maintaining consequence, not by topography, so identical-looking behaviors can serve different functions.
Question 72 of 85
Jordan receives adult attention on a fixed-time 1-minute NCR schedule to reduce attention-maintained head hitting. Head hitting has been near zero for several sessions, and the BCBA tells the RBT to begin thinning the schedule. Which action best fits this instruction?
Answer choices for question 72
ADeliver attention only after head hitting occurs to keep Jordan's motivation steadyBStop delivering scheduled attention entirely now that head hitting has stoppedCJump directly from every 1 minute to every 15 minutes to reach a natural classroom rateDGradually lengthen the interval, such as moving from every 1 minute to every 2 minutes, while monitoring behavior
Answer: D. NCR thinning involves small, gradual increases in the time between deliveries so behavior stays low as the schedule becomes more practical.
Why not A: Providing attention after head hitting would reinforce the problem behavior. NCR is time-based, not contingent on problem behavior.
Why not B: Abruptly ending NCR removes the free reinforcer all at once and is likely to bring back head hitting, possibly with a burst.
Why not C: A large, sudden jump in the interval is not gradual thinning and greatly increases the risk that problem behavior returns.
Remember: NCR schedules are thinned in small steps by lengthening the time between deliveries while problem behavior stays low.
Question 73 of 85
An RBT tells a client, "Line up at the door," and starts a stopwatch. The client starts walking toward the door 12 seconds later, and the RBT records 12 seconds. Which measurement is the RBT using?
Answer choices for question 73
ALatencyBDurationCInterresponse timeDFrequency
Answer: A. Latency is the time from a stimulus, such as an instruction, to the start of the response.
Why not B: Duration measures how long the response lasts from its start to its end, not how long it takes to begin.
Why not C: Interresponse time is the time between two responses, not the time between an instruction and a response.
Why not D: Frequency is a count of how many times a behavior occurs, not an amount of time.
Remember: Latency runs from the instruction or other stimulus to the start of the response.
Question 74 of 85
A learner reliably labels colors when an RBT presents flashcards at a table. However, he never labels colors while playing with blocks or painting. The supervisor adds natural environment training (NET) targets for colors. What is the main reason NET is likely to help?
Answer choices for question 74
ANET removes the need for prompting because the learner is already motivatedBNET produces more learning trials per minute than table-based teaching doesCNET teaches the skill with varied materials, settings and natural reinforcers where the skill is actually usedDNET presents the same scripted instruction every time, so responding becomes more consistent
Answer: C. Teaching within play and daily routines, with naturally occurring stimuli and consequences, promotes generalization of the skill beyond the table.
Why not A: Motivation helps, but prompts and prompt fading are still used in NET when the learner does not respond correctly.
Why not B: Discrete-trial teaching usually allows more trials per minute. NET's strength is not trial density.
Why not D: This describes a feature of DTT. NET deliberately varies instructions and materials to fit the natural context.
Remember: NET supports generalization by teaching with varied, naturally occurring stimuli and reinforcers in the settings where the skill will be used.
Question 75 of 85
A supervisor sits in on a session. She and the RBT each record a client's vocal requests independently, without looking at each other's sheets, and then compare their totals. What is the supervisor checking?
Answer choices for question 75
APermanent-product recording, which measures the lasting results of the client's behaviorBObserver drift, which is the planned process of comparing two observers' recordsCInterobserver agreement, which shows whether two independent observers record the same dataDProcedural fidelity, which shows whether the RBT carried out the plan exactly as written
Answer: C. Comparing independent records is interobserver agreement (IOA), which supervisors use to judge whether data are reliable.
Why not A: Vocal requests leave no lasting product, and the comparison is between two observers' live records.
Why not B: Observer drift is a problem, a gradual shift in how an observer applies a definition. IOA checks are one way to detect it.
Why not D: Procedural fidelity looks at how accurately the intervention was carried out, not whether two observers' data match.
Remember: Interobserver agreement compares two independent observers' records to check how reliable the data are.
Question 76 of 85
An agency billing manager tells an RBT to record session end times 30 minutes later than they actually were, saying, "The family was still in the building, so it counts." What is the RBT's most ethical response?
Answer choices for question 76
ARecord the actual times and raise the concern with her BCBA supervisor or the agency's compliance channelBRecord the actual times but say nothing, to avoid conflict with the managerCComply, because billing decisions are the manager's responsibility, not the RBT'sDComply on the official note but keep a private log of the true times as protection
Answer: A. Integrity requires accurate documentation, and taking the concern through appropriate channels addresses the pressure.
Why not B: Accurate notes are necessary, but staying silent leaves an ongoing integrity problem unaddressed.
Why not C: RBTs are responsible for the accuracy of their own documentation and cannot misrepresent services because someone else asked.
Why not D: Keeping a private log does not make submitting false records acceptable; the falsification still occurs.
Remember: RBTs document services truthfully no matter who asks otherwise, and raise pressure to falsify through appropriate channels.
Question 77 of 85
A learner zips his coat independently during a token-economy session. Which token delivery is best?
Answer choices for question 77
ATell him how many more tokens he needs before he can have his prizeBHand him a token right away while saying, "Awesome job zipping your coat!"CPlace a token on his board silently so he is not distracted from the next taskDGive him all of the tokens he earned at the end of the dressing routine
Answer: B. Delivering the token immediately with behavior-specific praise tells the learner exactly what earned it. It also builds the value of praise as a conditioned reinforcer.
Why not A: A reminder about remaining tokens is not reinforcement for zipping. The token and praise should come first.
Why not C: Silent delivery is a missed chance to pair praise with the token and to name the behavior that earned it.
Why not D: Delaying tokens until the end of the routine weakens the link between each response and its reinforcer.
Remember: Deliver each token immediately and pair it with praise that names the specific behavior.
Question 78 of 85
A student frequently calls out answers during group lessons. The plan directs the RBT to praise the student and call on them only when they raise a hand. Why is this best classified as DRA rather than DRI?
Answer choices for question 78
ABecause reinforcement is delivered only after an interval with no calling outBBecause calling out is placed on extinction, which DRI procedures never includeCBecause the student can raise a hand and call out at the same time, so the behaviors are not incompatibleDBecause the student receives praise, which is a social reinforcer rather than a tangible one
Answer: C. DRI requires a behavior that physically cannot co-occur with the target; raising a hand is an appropriate alternative but can happen alongside calling out.
Why not A: Reinforcing the absence of behavior over an interval describes DRO. Here a specific alternative behavior earns reinforcement.
Why not B: Both DRA and DRI typically include extinction for the problem behavior. Extinction does not distinguish the two.
Why not D: The type of reinforcer does not determine whether a procedure is DRA or DRI. Both can use social or tangible reinforcers.
Remember: Every DRI is a kind of DRA, but a DRA is only a DRI if the replacement behavior physically cannot occur at the same time as the problem behavior.
Question 79 of 85
During table work, Liam often twirls his fingers in front of his eyes. The behavior plan directs the RBT to deliver praise and a token whenever Liam has both hands on his puzzle pieces. Which procedure is the RBT using?
Answer choices for question 79
ANoncontingent reinforcement (NCR)BDifferential reinforcement of low rates (DRL)CDifferential reinforcement of other behavior (DRO)DDifferential reinforcement of incompatible behavior (DRI)
Answer: D. Liam cannot twirl his fingers in front of his eyes while both hands are placing puzzle pieces, so the reinforced behavior is physically incompatible with the target.
Why not A: NCR delivers reinforcers on a time schedule regardless of behavior. Here the token depends on Liam having his hands on the puzzle.
Why not B: DRL reinforces the target behavior when it occurs at or below a set rate. This plan does not allow finger twirling at a reduced rate.
Why not C: DRO reinforces the absence of the target behavior over an interval, not a specific behavior. Here a specific, incompatible behavior is reinforced.
Remember: In DRI, the reinforced behavior cannot physically occur at the same time as the problem behavior.
Question 80 of 85
Two RBTs collected frequency data on the same client's aggression during the same session. One recorded 4 instances and the other recorded 15. What should the RBT who notices this discrepancy do?
Answer choices for question 80
AChange the colleague's entry to match their own recorded countBKeep the lower count, since it reflects the client's recent progressCAverage the two counts and enter the result as the session totalDReport the discrepancy to the supervisor and ask for direction
Answer: D. A large difference between observers is a data irregularity. It may point to unclear definitions or a need for training, so the supervisor must address it.
Why not A: Altering another person's data is inappropriate. It also hides a problem the supervisor needs to know about.
Why not B: Choosing data because it looks favorable is biased. It misrepresents the client's behavior.
Why not C: Averaging hides a large disagreement. It produces a number neither observer actually recorded.
Remember: Report data irregularities, such as large disagreements between observers, to the supervisor instead of fixing or averaging the data yourself.
Question 81 of 85
During an MSWO assessment, an RBT notices the learner keeps picking whichever item sits at the far left of the array, no matter what it is. Which procedure is built into MSWO to reduce this problem?
Answer choices for question 81
ARemoving the far-left item before each trialBRearranging the remaining items' positions between trialsCPrompting the learner to choose an item on the rightDEnding the session after the first selection
Answer: B. Rotating item positions after each selection keeps position bias from being mistaken for preference.
Why not A: Taking away an item because of where it sits would distort the results. It does not test preference among all remaining items.
Why not C: Prompting a particular choice biases the outcome. It no longer measures the learner's own preference.
Why not D: A single selection gives no ranking and does nothing to control for position bias.
Remember: Rotate item positions between preference assessment trials so the learner's choices reflect the item, not its location.
Question 82 of 85
A 30-minute session is divided into six 5-minute intervals. Under an interval DRL, the client earns a reinforcer at the end of any interval with 1 or fewer instances of interrupting. Interruptions per interval were: 0, 2, 1, 3, 1, 0. How many reinforcers should the RBT deliver?
Answer choices for question 82
A2B4C6D7
Answer: B. Intervals meeting the criterion of 1 or fewer: interval 1 (0), interval 3 (1), interval 5 (1), interval 6 (0) = 4 reinforcers; intervals 2 (2) and 4 (3) exceed the limit.
Why not A: This counts only intervals with zero interruptions (or only those with exactly one). The DRL criterion is 1 or fewer, so both kinds of interval earn reinforcement.
Why not C: This gives a reinforcer for every interval, ignoring that intervals 2 and 4 had more than 1 interruption.
Why not D: This is the total number of interruptions (0+2+1+3+1+0), not the number of intervals that met the criterion.
Remember: In interval DRL, reinforcement is delivered for each interval in which the behavior stays at or below the set limit, not for its total absence.
Question 83 of 85
An RBT is shaping hand-raising. She has been reinforcing whenever the client lifts his hand to shoulder height, and he now does this reliably. According to shaping procedures, what should she do next?
Answer choices for question 83
APhysically guide his arm into a full raise and then deliver reinforcementBStop reinforcing all lifts until he produces a complete, full-height hand raiseCReinforce shoulder-level lifts and higher lifts equally to keep responding highDReinforce only lifts above shoulder height and stop reinforcing shoulder-level lifts
Answer: D. Shaping advances by reinforcing the next closer approximation and placing the previous approximation on extinction.
Why not A: Physical guidance is a response prompt, not shaping, which relies on reinforcing the learner's own approximations.
Why not B: Jumping straight to the final behavior skips intermediate approximations and is likely to cause responding to drop.
Why not C: Without differential reinforcement there is no reason for the response to move closer to the target.
Remember: In shaping, once an approximation is reliable, reinforce the next closer step and stop reinforcing the old one.
Question 84 of 85
In a paired stimulus (paired choice) preference assessment, how many items does the learner see on each trial?
Answer choices for question 84
AOne item, presented aloneBTwo items, presented togetherCAll items, arranged in an arrayDAll items, spread freely in the room
Answer: B. Each trial shows two items side by side, and over the session every item is paired with every other item.
Why not A: Showing one item at a time is a single-stimulus format. It measures approach to each item, not choice between items.
Why not C: Showing all items at once describes the multiple stimulus formats (MSWO or MSW), not paired stimulus.
Why not D: Items left freely available with no trials describes a free operant assessment.
Remember: Paired stimulus means exactly two items per trial, with every item eventually paired against every other item.
Question 85 of 85
A BCBA's DTT error-correction protocol says: after an error, re-present the SD with an immediate full prompt, then run a transfer trial. The learner has just made a prompted correct response. What does the transfer trial involve?
Answer choices for question 85
AMoving to a new target so the learner does not become frustratedBPresenting the same SD again with a full prompt for several more trialsCGiving a large reinforcer for the prompted response to strengthen itDPresenting the same SD again with no prompt or a less intrusive prompt so the learner can respond more independently
Answer: D. The transfer trial shifts control from the prompt to the SD by giving the learner a chance to respond with less or no help.
Why not A: Switching targets skips the step that gives the learner a chance to perform the corrected response without help.
Why not B: Repeating full prompts does not test or build independence, which is the point of the transfer trial.
Why not C: Prompted responses usually receive less reinforcement than independent ones, and this step does not transfer control to the SD.
Remember: In error correction, the transfer trial re-presents the SD with less or no prompting so control transfers from the prompt to the SD.

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The real RBT: 85 questions (75 scored) in 90 min, pearson VUE test centers. Pass/fail; the BACB doesn't publish the cut score. These are original practice questions, not questions from the real exam.